A characteristics a good systems analysts is question everything concerning requirements.

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IS341 – Business Systems Analysis

Sample Test 2

Chapters 5, 6, 7, 8,

1) Which of the following is a subphase of analysis?

A) Project identification

B) Project planning

C) Requirements determination

D) Database design

E) Human interface design

2) Analysts gathering information from as many sources as possible about what the new system should do is indicative of:

A) requirements determination.

B) requirements structuring.

C) alternative generation and selection.

D) project identification and selection.

E) project initiation and planning.

3) The impertinence characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the following statements?

A) You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways.

B) You should question everything.

C) Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible.

D) Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem.

E) Every fact must fit with every other fact.

4) The impartiality characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the following statements?

A) You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways.

B) Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem or opportunity.

C) Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible.

D) You should question everything.

E) Every fact must fit with every other fact.

5) Assuming anything is possible and eliminating the infeasible best describes:

A) the impertinence characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

B) the impartiality characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

C) the relaxing of constraints characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

D) the attention to details characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

E) the reframing characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

6) Questioning everything best describes:

A) the impertinence characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

B) the impartiality characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

C) the relaxing of constraints characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

D) the attention to details characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

E) the reframing characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

7) Ensuring that every fact fits with every other fact best describes:

A) the impertinence characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

B) the impartiality characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

C) the relaxing of constraints characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

D) the attention to details characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

E) the reframing characteristic a systems analyst needs during requirements determination.

8) The reframing characteristic of a good systems analyst is represented by which of the following statements?

A) You must challenge yourself to look at the organization in new ways.

B) Every fact must fit with every other fact.

C) Assume anything is possible, and eliminate the infeasible.

D) You should question everything.

E) Your role is to find the best solution to a business problem.

9) The primary deliverables from requirements determination include:

A) observation notes.

B) interview transcripts.

C) analysis from documents.

D) all of the above.

E) none of the above.

10) Which of the following are organizational components that a systems analyst needs to understand?

A) Key events affecting data values and when these events occur

B) Policies and guidelines that describe the nature of the business, the market, and the environment in which it operates

C) The sequence and other dependencies among different data-handling activities

D) The data handled within the organization to support the jobs

E) All of the above

11) The purpose of requirements structuring is to:

A) enable the analysts to gather information on what the system should do from as many sources as possible.

B) enable the analysts to develop a baseline project plan quickly.

C) enable the large amount of information gathered during requirements determination to be organized.

D) enable the analysts to identify several feasible alternatives.

E) enable the analysts to construct the project scope statement quickly.

12) The term that refers to systems development projects bogged down in an abundance of analysis work is:

A) information overload.

B) analysis paralysis.

C) analysis overload.

D) information abundance.

E) disruptive analysis.

13) Techniques developed to keep the analysis effort minimal, yet still effective include:

A) JAD.

B) interviewing.

C) observations.

D) document analysis.

E) questionnaires.

14) Traditional methods of collecting systems requirements include:

A) interviews.

B) agile methodologies.

C) joint application design.

D) rapid application development.

E) prototyping.

15) Which of the following is a traditional method of collecting systems requirements?

A) Business process reengineering

B) Observations

C) Joint application design

D) Rapid application development

E) Prototyping

16) Questions in interviews and on questionnaires that have no prespecified answers are:

A) nonspecific questions.

B) closed-ended questions.

C) open-ended questions.

D) investigative questions.

E) exploratory questions.

17) One advantage of open-ended questions in an interview is:

A) a significant amount of time can be devoted to each interviewee.

B) the interviewee is restricted to providing just a few answers.

C) previously unknown information can result.

D) they work well when the answers to the questions are well known.

E) they are not biased.

18) Which of the following can be considered an advantage of open-ended questions?

A) The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.

B) Open-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.

C) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.

D) Interviewees can respond in their own words using their own structure.

E) All of the above.

19) Questions in interviews and on questionnaires asking those responding to choose from among a set of specified responses are:

A) specific questions.

B) closed-ended questions.

C) open-ended questions.

D) structured questions.

E) stratified questions.

20) Which of the following can be considered an advantage of closed-ended questions?

A) The interviewer can explore unexpected lines of inquiry.

B) Closed-ended questions work well when the major answers to the questions are well known.

C) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.

D) Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.

E) Previously unknown information may surface.

21) Which of the following is an advantage of closed-ended questions?

A) Interviews based on closed-ended questions do not necessarily require a large time commitment, so more topics can be covered.

B) Closed-ended questions enable the analysts to explore information that does not quite fit defined answers.

C) The analyst can obtain previously unknown information.

D) Closed-ended questions often put the interviewee at ease.

E) The interviewee has a sense of involvement and control in the interview.

22) Rating a response or idea on some scale, say from strongly agree to strongly disagree, would be classified as a(n):

A) open-ended question.

B) stratified question.

C) closed-ended question.

D) contemporary question.

E) structured question.

23) Good interview guidelines consist of:

A) phrasing the question to illicit the correct response.

B) typing your notes within two weeks of the interview.

C) establishing expectation levels about the new system.

D) seeking a variety of perspectives from the interviews.

E) using as much time as you need.

24) Which of the following is a reason for directly observing end users?

A) The analyst gets a snapshot image of the person or task being observed.

B) Observations are not very time consuming.

C) People often do not have a completely accurate appreciation of what they do or how they do it.

D) Employees will alter their performance if they know that they are being observed.

E) Interviewing is less rich, passive, and often provides ambiguous data.

25) The analysis of documents can help you identify:

A) problems with existing systems.

B) special information processing circumstances that occur irregularly and may not be identified by any other requirements determination technique.

C) the reason why current systems are designed the way they are.

D) the organizational direction that can influence information system requirements.

E) all of the above.

26) A written work procedure:

A) indicates the job an analyst will need to perform on a given project.

B) describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are used and created in the process of performing the job.

C) indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.

D) enables you to work backwards from the information on a report to the data that must have been necessary to generate it.

E) determines if the information makes sense for the organization from an economic and operational standpoint.

27) If your analysis of several written procedures reveals a duplication of effort in two jobs, you should:

A) indicate that one job be deleted from the new system.

B) call the duplication to the attention of management as an issue to be resolved before system design can proceed.

C) justify the duplication of effort.

D) restructure the tasks so that the duplication is removed.

E) not mention the duplication of effort to management.

28) The official way a system works as described in organizational documentation is referred to as a(n):

A) formal system.

B) informal system.

C) official system.

D) desired system.

E) primary system.

29) The way a system actually works is referred to as a(n):

A) unofficial system.

B) informal system.

C) actual system.

D) formal system.

E) secondary system.

30) Forms are important for understanding a business because they:

A) indicate the correct sequencing of tasks.

B) describe how particular tasks are performed.

C) indicate what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.

D) enable you to work backwards from the information on a report to the necessary data that must have been necessary to generate them.

E) identify duplicate efforts within a system.

31) Forms are most useful:

A) when they do not contain any data.

B) during the initial planning stages.

C) when they contain actual organizational data.

D) during the design stage.

E) during the requirements structuring stage.

32) A report:

A) indicates the inputs required for the new system.

B) describes how a particular job or task is performed, including data and information that are used and created in the process of performing the job.

C) indicates what data flow in or out of a system and which are necessary for the system to function.

D) enables you to work backward from the information on the document and identify the data that must have been necessary to generate it.

E) does none of the above.

33) When reviewing job procedures, you may find:

A) a missing procedure.

B) duplicate procedures.

C) out of date procedures.

D) a contradiction between a formal procedure and interview or observation results.

E) all of the above.

34) Which of the following is a modern method for collecting system requirements?

A) Interviewing

B) Questionnaires

C) Observations

D) Joint application design

E) Document analysis

35) Which of the following is a true statement regarding JAD?

A) A working system is the end result of a JAD.

B) JAD sessions are usually conducted in the organization's conference room.

C) The primary purpose of using JAD in the analysis phase is to collect systems requirements simultaneously from the key people involved with the system.

D) A JAD session is inexpensive to conduct.

E) JADs benefit greatly from computer support.

36) When comparing observations and document analysis:

A) the time required to conduct observations compared to document analysis is low.

B) the expense of the observation method is quite low.

C) the potential audience of the observation method is limited.

D) a clear commitment is discernible.

E) the chances of probing and clarification are good with document analysis.

37) The typical participants in a JAD include:

A) a session leader.

B) a scribe.

C) a sponsor.

D) systems analysts.

E) all of the above.

38) The trained individual who plans and leads joint application design sessions is referred to as the:

A) scribe.

B) session leader.

C) manager.

D) analyst.

E) sponsor.

39) Which of the following JAD participants use the system in question and provide insight into new organizational directions, motivations for and organizational impacts of systems, and support for requirements determined during the JAD?

A) Managers

B) Sponsors

C) Session leaders

D) Users

E) Scribes

40) The person who makes detailed notes of the happenings at a joint application design session is referred to as the:

A) JAD analyst.

B) scribe.

C) JAD manager.

D) JAD session leader.

E) JAD oracle.

41) Drawbacks to prototyping include:

A) a tendency to avoid creating formal documentation of systems requirements which can then make the system more difficult to develop into a fully working system.

B) prototypes becoming very idiosyncratic to the initial user and difficult to diffuse or adapt to other potential users.

C) prototypes are often built as stand-alone systems.

D) checks in the SDLC are bypassed so that some more subtle, but still important, system requirements might be forgotten.

E) all of the above.

42) Prototyping is most useful for requirements determination when:

A) user requirements are well understood.

B) communication problems have existed in the past between users and analysts.

C) possible designs are simple and require an abstract form to fully evaluate.

D) multiple stakeholders are involved with the system.

E) data are not readily available.

43) The search for, and implementation of, radical change in business processes to achieve breakthrough improvements in products and services best defines:

A) joint application design.

B) rapid application development.

C) structured programming.

D) business process reengineering.

E) disruptive design.

44) The structured, measured set of activities designed to produce a specific output for a particular customer or market best defines:

A) formal systems.

B) key business processes.

C) secondary activities.

D) production systems.

E) primary processes.

45) Which of the following system requirement determination techniques can be applied to discovering and understanding key business processes?

A) JAD

B) Document analysis

C) Observation

D) Interview

E) All of the above

46) Technologies that enable the breaking of long-held business rules that inhibit organizations from making radical business changes best defines:

A) technology barrier breakers.

B) reengineered technologies.

C) disruptive technologies.

D) state-of-the-art technologies.

E) innovative technologies.

47) Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule that information can appear only in one place at a time?

A) High-performance computing

B) Distributed databases

C) Expert systems

D) Advanced telecommunications networks

E) Decision support tools

48) Which of the following technologies disrupted the business rule of you having to find out where things are?

A) Distributed databases

B) Expert systems

C) Advanced telecommunications networks

D) Automatic identification and tracking technology

E) Interactive communications technologies

49) Disruptive technologies include:

A) distributed databases.

B) expert systems.

C) decision support tools.

D) automatic identification and tracking technology.

E) all of the above.

50) The types of customers to be supported by Pine Valley Furniture's new WebStore include:

A) corporate customers.

B) home office customers.

C) student customers.

D) all of the above.

E) none of the above.

51) Data-flow diagrams allow you to:

A) show the timing of data flows.

B) model how data flow through an information system.

C) demonstrate the sequencing of activities.

D) show the relationship among entities.

E) represent the internal structure and functionality of processes.

52) Since data-flow diagrams concentrate on the movement of data between processes, these diagrams are often referred to as:

A) process models.

B) data models.

C) flow models.

D) flow charts.

E) logic models.

53) Graphically representing the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system refers to:

A) data modeling.

B) structure modeling.

C) process modeling.

D) transition modeling.

E) logic modeling.

54) The diagram that shows the scope of the system, indicating what elements are inside and outside the system, is called a:

A) context diagram.

B) level-2 diagram.

C) referencing diagram.

D) representative diagram.

E) decomposition diagram.

55) Which of the following is NOT a process modeling deliverable?

A) A context data-flow diagram

B) Thorough descriptions of each DFD component

C) DFDs of the current physical system

D) An entity relationship diagram

E) DFDs of the new logical system

56) Data contained on a customer order form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:

A) process.

B) data flow.

C) source.

D) sink.

E) relationship.

57) Student data contained on an enrollment form would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:

A) process.

B) data flow.

C) source.

D) data store.

E) relationship.

58) Data in motion, moving from one place in a system to another, best describes a:

A) data store.

B) process.

C) source.

D) data flow.

E) relationship.

59) Data at rest, which may take the form of many different physical representations, best describes a:

A) source.

B) data store.

C) data flow.

D) process.

E) relationship.

60) A file folder containing orders would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:

A) process.

B) source.

C) data flow.

D) data store.

E) relationship.

61) A computer-based file containing employee information would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n):

A) data flow.

B) source.

C) data store.

D) process.

E) action stub.

62) The calculation of an employee's salary would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n):

A) data flow.

B) source.

C) data store.

D) process.

E) action stub.

63) Recording a customer's payment would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a(n):

A) process.

B) source.

C) data flow.

D) data store.

E) action stub.

64) A supplier of auto parts to your company would be represented on a data-flow diagram as a:

A) process.

B) source.

C) data flow.

D) data store.

E) relationship.

65) Which of the following would be considered when diagramming?

A) The interactions occurring between sources and sinks

B) How to provide sources and sinks direct access to stored data

C) How to control or redesign a source or sink

D) What a source or sink does with information or how it operates

E) None of the above

66) The work or actions performed on data so that they are transformed, stored, or distributed defines:

A) source.

B) data store.

C) data flow.

D) process.

E) action stub.

67) The origin and/or destination of data, sometimes referred to as external entities defines:

A) source.

B) data store.

C) data flow.

D) process.

E) predecessor.

68) An arrow on a data-flow diagram represents a(n):

A) data store.

B) data flow.

C) process.

D) source.

E) action sequence.

69) A square on a data-flow diagram represents a:

A) data flow.

B) data store.

C) process.

D) predecessor.

E) source.

70) On a data-flow diagram, a rectangle with rounded corners represents a(n):

A) data store.

B) process.

C) action stub.

D) data flow.

E) source.

71) On a data-flow diagram, a rectangle with the right vertical line missing represents a:

A) data store.

B) data flow.

C) process.

D) source.

E) relationship.

72) Which of the following is a true statement regarding sources/sinks?

A) Data must originate outside a system from one or more sources.

B) The system must produce information to one or more sinks.

C) Sources/sinks are always outside the information system and define the boundaries of the system.

D) If any processing takes place inside the source/sink, we are not interested in it.

E) All of the above are true statements.

73) Which of the following is most likely a source/sink for a manufacturing system?

A) A customer

B) A supplier

C) Another information system

D) A bank

E) All of the above

74) Which of the following is true regarding the context diagram?

A) The process symbol is labeled "0."

B) The context diagram contains two processes.

C) Data stores must be shown on the context diagram.

D) The internal workings of the system are shown on the context diagram.

E) The context diagram organizes the processes in a tree-like structure.

75) A data-flow diagram that represents a system's major processes, data flows, and data stores at a high level of detail refers to a:

A) context diagram.

B) level-1 diagram.

C) level-0 diagram.

D) level-00 diagram.

E) logic diagram.

76) If two processes are connected by a data flow, they are said to:

A) exhibit cohesion.

B) share the same data.

C) be coupled to each other.

D) be strapped to each other.

E) be intertwined.

77) By placing a data store between two processes, this:

A) decouples the processes.

B) enables store and forward capabilities.

C) enhances the flow of data between the processes.

D) structures the processes.

E) disintegrates the processes.

78) A miracle process is one that:

A) has only inputs.

B) has only outputs.

C) cannot be exploded further.

D) has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes.

E) is connected directly to a source.

79) A black hole is a process that:

A) has only inputs.

B) has only outputs.

C) has not been exploded to show enough detail.

D) has insufficient inputs to produce the associated processes.

E) generates output directly to a sink.

80) Which of the following is a true statement regarding a data store?

A) Data can move directly from one data store to another data store.

B) Data stores illustrate relationships among entities.

C) A data store has a noun phrase label.

D) Data can move from an outside source to a data store.

E) A data store shows data in motion.

81) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding data flows?

A) A data flow can go directly back to the same process it leaves.

B) A fork in a data flow means that exactly the same data go from a common location to two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks.

C) A data flow from a data store means retrieve or use.

D) A data flow has a noun phrase label.

E) A data flow has only one direction of flow between symbols.

82) Which of the following is a true statement regarding data flows?

A) A data flow to a data store means retrieve or use.

B) A data flow from a data store means update.

C) A data flow may have double-ended arrows.

D) A data flow represents data at rest.

E) A join in a data flow means that exactly the same data come from any of two or more different processes, data stores, or sources/sinks to a common location.

83) On a data-flow diagram, you may:

A) repeat data stores and processes.

B) repeat sources/sinks and processes.

C) only repeat processes.

D) repeat relationships.

E) repeat both data stores and sources/sinks.

84) The act of going from a single system to several component processes refers to:

A) structuring.

B) balancing.

C) decomposition.

D) formatting.

E) regeneration.

85) The lowest level of DFDs are:

A) level-0 diagrams.

B) context diagrams.

C) level-1 diagrams.

D) primitive data-flow diagrams.

E) systematic diagrams.

86) A DFD that is a result of three nested decompositions of a series of subprocesses from a process on a level-0 diagram describes a:

A) level-3 diagram.

B) level-1 diagram.

C) level-2 diagram.

D) primitive diagram.

E) context diagram.

87) The conservation of inputs and outputs to a data-flow diagram process when that process is decomposed to a lower level defines:

A) decomposition.

B) balancing.

C) flow conservation.

D) data flow structuring.

E) gap proofing.

88) If a data flow appears on the context diagram and is also represented on a level-0 diagram, this would be referred to as:

A) leveling.

B) flow conservation.

C) balancing.

D) cohesion.

E) coupling.

89) If an input from a source appears on a level-0 diagram, it must:

A) appear on the context diagram.

B) be connected to a data flow.

C) be connected to a sink.

D) be connected to a data store.

E) be connected to two entities.

90) If your DFD contains data flows that do not lead anywhere, it is not:

A) gap proof.

B) a primitive diagram.

C) complete.

D) consistent.

E) balanced.

91) The extent to which all necessary components of a data-flow diagram have been included and fully described defines:

A) DFD consistency.

B) DFD completeness.

C) DFD gap proofing.

D) DFD flexibility.

E) DFD cohesion.

92) Having a level-1 diagram with no level-0 diagram is an example of a:

A) violation of completeness.

B) violation of consistency.

C) balancing error.

D) structuring violation.

E) cohesion error.

93) The extent to which information contained on one level of a set of nested data-flow diagrams is also included on other levels refers to:

A) DFD consistency.

B) DFD completeness.

C) DFD gap proofing.

D) DFD flexibility.

E) DFD cohesion.

94) When you believe that you have shown each business form or transaction, computer screen, and report as a single data flow, you have probably reached the:

A) level-0 diagrams.

B) ternary level diagrams.

C) primitive data-flow diagrams.

D) secondary-level diagrams.

E) context level diagrams.

95) The lowest level of decomposition for a data-flow diagram is called the:

A) context diagram.

B) level-0 diagram.

C) level-1 diagram.

D) primitive diagram.

E) cohesive diagram.

96) The process of discovering discrepancies between two or more sets of data-flow diagrams or discrepancies within a single DFD is referred to as:

A) requirements structuring.

B) logic modeling.

C) DFD validation.

D) gap analysis.

E) DFD stress testing.

97) Techniques used for modeling system logic include:

A) flow charts.

B) decision tables.

C) data-flow diagrams.

D) dialogue charts.

E) entity relationship diagrams.

98) The part of a decision table that links conditions to actions is the section that contains the:

A) action statements.

B) rules.

C) condition statements.

D) decision stubs.

E) relationship stubs.

99) The part of a decision table that lists the actions that result for a given set of conditions is called:

A) action stubs.

B) condition stubs.

C) rule section.

D) execution stubs.

E) processing stubs.

100) Some systems developers believe that a data model is the most important part of the statement of information system requirements because:

A) the characteristics of data captured during data modeling are crucial in the design of databases, programs, computer screens, and printed reports.

B) data rather than processes are the most complex aspects of many modern information systems and thus require a central role in structuring system requirements.

C) the characteristics about data are reasonably permanent.

D) structural information about data is essential to generate programs automatically.

E) of all of the above.

101) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Data characteristics are dynamic.

B) A data model explains the transient form of an organization.

C) An information system design based on a data orientation, rather than a process or logic orientation, should have a longer useful life.

D) Data flow paths are permanent.

E) A data model graphically represents the processes that capture, manipulate, store, and distribute data between a system and its environment and among components within a system.

102) Conceptual data modeling is typically done in parallel with other requirements analysis and structuring steps during:

A) systems planning and selection.

B) systems design.

C) systems analysis.

D) systems implementation and operation.

E) systems evaluation.

103) Process, logic, and data-model descriptions of a system must be consistent and complete since:

A) they each describe different but complementary views of the same information system.

B) they are prepared during the analysis phase.

C) they are constructed in parallel by separate analyst teams.

D) a data model indicates when the data are processed.

E) a data model shows how the data are processed.

104) The most common format used for data modeling is:

A) state-transition diagramming.

B) entity-relationship diagramming.

C) process modeling.

D) logic modeling.

E) a flowchart.

105) During systems analysis:

A) a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared.

B) a logical model (relational) is prepared.

C) physical files and database designs are prepared.

D) an enterprise-wide data model is prepared.

E) database and file definitions are prepared.

106) During systems planning and selection:

A) a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared.

B) a logical model (relational) is prepared.

C) physical files and database designs are prepared.

D) an enterprise-wide data model is prepared.

E) database and file definitions are prepared.

107) During systems design:

A) a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared.

B) a logical model (relational) is prepared.

C) a conceptual data model (E-R with only entities for the specific project) is prepared.

D) an enterprise-wide data model is prepared.

E) database and file definitions are prepared.

108) During systems implementation and operation:

A) a conceptual data model (E-R with attributes) is prepared.

B) a logical model (relational) is prepared.

C) physical files and database designs are prepared.

D) an enterprise-wide data model is prepared.

E) database and file definitions are prepared.

109) The primary deliverable from the conceptual data-modeling step within the analysis phase is:

A) a state-transition diagram.

B) an entity-relationship diagram.

C) a context data flow diagram.

D) a decision table.

E) Structured English.

110) Which of the following is produced and analyzed during conceptual data modeling?

A) An entity relationship diagram for the project's application

B) A data dialogue diagram for the project's application

C) A Gantt chart for the whole database from which the new application's data are extracted

D) A Network diagram for the whole database from which the new application's data are extracted

E) A data flow diagram that shows how the new system will be physically implemented

111) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) A data model explains what the organization does and what rules govern how work is done in the organization.

B) To construct a data model, you need to know how data are processed.

C) To construct a data model, you need to know when data are processed.

D) A data flow diagram graphically illustrates the structure and relationships among data items.

E) During conceptual data modeling, the preparation of a Network diagram is necessary.

112) The data modeling perspective that derives the business rules for a data model from an intimate understanding of the nature of the business, rather than from any specific information requirements in screens, reports, or business forms, is referred to as the:

A) top-down approach.

B) bottom-up approach.

C) overview approach.

D) business approach.

E) conceptual approach.

113) Gathering the information you need for data modeling by reviewing specific business documents handled within the system describes the:

A) bottom-up approach.

B) conceptual approach.

C) top-down approach.

D) investigative approach.

E) business approach.

114) Reviewing computer screens, reports, and business forms for the purpose of gaining an understanding of data is indicative of the:

A) investigative approach.

B) business approach.

C) bottom-up approach.

D) top-down approach.

E) conceptual approach.

115) Asking system users and business managers "How many instances of each object might exist?" would help determine:

A) the data entities and their descriptions.

B) the candidate key.

C) attributes and secondary keys.

D) relationships and their cardinality and degrees.

E) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.

116) Asking system users and managers "Who is responsible for establishing legitimate values for these data?" helps determine:

A) the candidate key.

B) security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data.

C) relationships and their cardinality and degrees.

D) attributes and secondary keys.

E) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.

117) Asking system users and business managers "Is each activity or event always handled the same way or are there special circumstances?" helps determine:

A) the candidate key.

B) integrity rules, minimum and maximum cardinality, and time dimensions of data.

C) security controls and understanding who really knows the meaning of data.

D) attributes and secondary keys.

E) relationships and their cardinality and degrees.

118) A detailed, logical, and graphical representation of the entities, associations, and data elements for an organization or business area best describes a(n):

A) logic model.

B) data-flow diagram.

C) entity-relationship diagram or E-R diagram.

D) structure chart.

E) data tree.

119) On an entity-relationship diagram, a rectangle represents a(n):

A) data flow.

B) entity.

C) multivalued attribute.

D) repeating group.

E) relationship.

120) A person, place, object, event, or concept in the user environment about which the organization wishes to maintain data refers to a(n):

A) attribute.

B) data element.

C) relationship.

D) entity.

E) process.

121) A product is an example of a(n):

A) data element.

B) attribute.

C) entity.

D) relationship.

E) process.

122) A renewal is an example of a(n):

A) data element.

B) attribute.

C) entity.

D) relationship.

E) action stub.

123) A collection of entities that share common properties or characteristics best defines:

A) entity type.

B) entity instance.

C) entity occurrence.

D) entity collection.

E) data set.

124) A single occurrence of an entity type defines:

A) entity instance.

B) entity appearance.

C) attribute.

D) data element.

E) multivalued attribute.

125) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Data entities correspond to sources/sinks on a data flow diagram.

B) Relationships correspond to data flows on a data flow diagram.

C) A data entity will have many possible instances.

D) Verbs are used to name entity types.

E) An entity type is described many times in the data model.

126) A named property or characteristic of an entity that is of interest to the organization defines:

A) attribute.

B) relationship.

C) instance.

D) associative entity.

E) data flow.

127) Vehicle identification number, color, weight, and horsepower best exemplify:

A) entities.

B) entity types.

C) data markers.

D) identifiers.

E) attributes.

128) An attribute (or combination of attributes) that uniquely identifies each instance of an entity type defines:

A) data element occurrence.

B) trigger.

C) candidate key.

D) associative entity.

E) data marker.

129) When selecting an identifier, one should:

A) use intelligent keys.

B) use large composite keys instead of single-attribute surrogate keys.

C) choose a candidate key that will not change its value over the life of each instance of the entity type.

D) choose a candidate key such that for each instance of the entity, the attribute is guaranteed to have valid values or is null.

E) choose a candidate key that allows for duplicate values.

130) A candidate key that has been selected as the unique, identifying characteristic for an entity type is called a(n):

A) attribute.

B) identifier.

C) secondary key.

D) gerund.

E) index.

131) On an entity-relationship diagram, the entity's identifier is:

A) identified by using a double-lined ellipse.

B) underlined on an E-R diagram.

C) bold on an E-R diagram.

D) written in all capital letters on an E-R diagram.

E) placed in italics.

132) An attribute that can have more than one value for each entity instance is referred to as:

A) a gerund.

B) a multivalued attribute.

C) a nonexclusive attribute.

D) a data replica.

E) none of the above.

133) If each employee can have more than one skill, then skill is referred to as a:

A) gerund.

B) multivalued attribute.

C) nonexclusive attribute.

D) repeating attribute.

E) data replica.

134) A set of two or more multivalued attributes that are logically related defines:

A) relationship.

B) associative entity.

C) repeating group.

D) class.

E) repeating entity.

135) An association between the instances of one or more entity types that is of interest to the organization best defines:

A) occurrence.

B) relationship.

C) natural connection.

D) cardinality.

E) entity link.

136) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) The goal of conceptual data modeling is to capture as much of the meaning of data as is possible.

B) The efficiencies gained by maintaining systems at the rule rather than code level drastically reduce cost.

C) If a thorough repository of data descriptions is kept, the system can be regenerated as the business rules change.

D) The more details about data that we can model, the better the system we can design and build.

E) All of the above are true statements.

137) A relationship between the instances of one entity type is a:

A) unary relationship.

B) binary relationship.

C) ternary relationship.

D) singular occurrence.

E) partnership occurrence.

138) The number of entity types that participate in a relationship refers to:

A) cardinality.

B) association.

C) count.

D) degree.

E) normalization.

139) If STUDENT and COURSE participate in a relationship, this is an example of a(n):

A) unary relationship.

B) coupled relationship.

C) binary relationship.

D) ternary relationship.

E) extraordinary relationship.

140) A ternary relationship occurs when a simultaneous relationship exists among instances of:

A) the same entity.

B) two entity types.

C) three entity types.

D) four entity types.

E) nine entity types.

141) A relationship between instances of two entity types is a:

A) unary relationship.

B) binary relationship.

C) ternary relationship.

D) multiple occurrence.

E) partnership occurrence.

142) A simultaneous relationship among instances of three entity types is a:

A) unary relationship.

B) binary relationship.

C) ternary relationship.

D) multiple occurrence.

E) recursive join.

143) The number of instances of entity B that can (or must) be associated with each instance of entity A refers to:

A) cardinality.

B) domain.

C) ternary occurrence.

D) participation level.

E) join level.

144) The minimum number of instances of entity B that may be associated with each instance of entity A defines the:

A) degree of the relationship.

B) minimum cardinality of the relationship.

C) maximum cardinality of the relationship.

D) domain of the relationship.

E) join level.

145) If entity B is a mandatory participant, then:

A) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is two.

B) the minimum cardinality of the relationship cannot be defined.

C) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is one.

D) the minimum cardinality of the relationship is optional.

E) the join level is not null.

146) A "many" maximum cardinality is noted on the E-R diagram by:

A) placing a crow's foot notation near the entity.

B) placing a zero through the line near the entity.

C) using a double ellipse near the entity.

D) placing two slash marks near the entity.

E) using brackets.

147) A relationship that the data modeler chooses to model as an entity type best defines:

A) recursive relationship.

B) associative entity.

C) domain.

D) complex relationship.

E) complex entity.

148) During which of the following steps will you bring the current phase to a close, prepare a report and presentation to management concerning continuation of the project, and get ready to move the project into design?

A) Designing the human interface

B) Requirements determination

C) Project initiation and planning

D) Alternative generation and selection

E) Requirements structuring

149) Selecting the best alternative system involves:

A) generating a comprehensive set of alternative design strategies.

B) selecting the alternative design strategy that is most likely to result in the desired information system, given all of the organizational, economic, and technical constraints that limit what can be done.

C) developing all technology and organizational specifications necessary to implement the new information system.

D) working with a customer to establish work standards and communication procedures.

E) both A and B.

150) Which of the following includes statements on the system's functionality, hardware and system software platform, and method for acquisition?

A) Problem statement

B) Requirements statement

C) Design strategy

D) Systems service request

E) Statement of work

151) A particular approach to developing an information system best describes:

A) design strategy.

B) problem statement.

C) requirements statement.

D) scope.

E) systems service request.

152) Determining requirements and structuring requirements are associated with:

A) systems selection.

B) systems implementation and operation.

C) systems design.

D) systems planning and selection.

E) systems analysis.

153) Dividing requirements into different sets of capabilities, ranging from the bare minimum that users would accept to the most elaborate and advanced system the company could afford to develop occurs during the:

A) requirements structuring step of the analysis phase.

B) alternative generation and selection step of the analysis phase.

C) testing step of the implementation and operation phase.

D) project initiation and planning step of the planning and selection phase.

E) designing the human interface step of the design phase.

154) Enumerating different potential implementation environments that could be used to deliver the different sets of capabilities occurs during the:

A) requirements structuring step of the analysis phase.

B) alternative generation and selection step of the analysis phase.

C) testing step of the implementation and operation phase.

D) project initiation and planning step of the planning and selection phase.

E) designing the human interface step of the design phase.

155) Shaping alternative system design strategies involves:

A) enumerating different potential implementation environments.

B) proposing different ways to source or acquire the various sets of capabilities for the different implementation environments.

C) dividing requirements into different sets of capabilities.

D) all of the above.

E) none of the above.

156) In theory, if there are four sources of application software, two implementation environments, and three sets of requirements, how many design strategies are possible?

A) 4

B) 24

C) 9

D) 2

E) 27

157) Which of the following is a true statement regarding midrange alternatives?

A) Midrange alternative design strategies often do not involve computer technology; instead they focus on making paper flows more efficient or reducing redundancies in current processes.

B) Midrange alternative design strategies represent compromise solutions.

C) Functionality is the primary focus of midrange alternative design strategies.

D) Midrange alternative design strategies provide all the required functionality users demand with a system that is minimally different from the current system.

E) Midrange alternative design strategies provide all the desired features using advanced technologies that often allow the system to expand to meet future requirements.

158) Which of the following is a true statement regarding high-end alternatives?

A) High-end alternative design strategies often do not involve computer technology; instead they focus on making paper flows more efficient or reducing redundancies in current processes.

B) High-end alternative design strategies represent compromise solutions.

C) Functionality is the primary focus of high-end alternative design strategies.

D) High-end alternative design strategies provide all the required functionality users demand with a system that is minimally different from the current system.

E) None of the above is correct.

159) A good number of alternatives to generate is:

A) 3.

B) 2.

C) 4.

D) 5.

E) 7.

160) The most conservative solutions in terms of the effort, cost, and technology involved in developing a new system are the:

A) low-end solutions.

B) high-end solutions.

C) mid-range solutions.

D) constraint-dependent solutions.

E) requirements-dependent solutions.

161) The alternative that goes beyond simply solving the problem in question and focuses instead on systems that contain many extra features users may desire is referred to as a:

A) low-end alternative.

B) high-end alternative.

C) quality-focused alternative.

D) requirements-dependent alternative.

E) constraints-dependent alternative.

162) Which of the following types of alternatives represent compromise solutions?

A) Low-end alternatives

B) High-end alternatives

C) Midrange alternatives

D) Requirements-dependent alternatives

E) Constraints-dependent alternatives

163) The minimum requirements for the new system are called:

A) essential features.

B) desired features.

C) minimum features.

D) mandatory features.

E) designated features.

164) Features that everyone agrees are necessary to solve the problem or meet the opportunity are called:

A) desired features.

B) essential features.

C) mandatory features.

D) minimum features.

E) requested features.

165) Identifying mandatory features by surveying users and other stakeholders who have been involved in requirements determination would occur:

A) near the end of the analysis phase, after all requirements have been structured and analyzed.

B) near the end of the project identification and selection phase, after a formal request to conduct a project to design and develop an information systems solution has been approved.

C) during the logical design phase, while detailed function specifications of all data, forms, reports, screens, and processing rules for all aspects of the system are prepared.

D) during systems planning and selection.

E) during systems implementation and operation.

166) System features might include:

A) data kept in system files.

B) system outputs.

C) analyses to generate the information in system outputs.

D) expectations on accessibility, response time, or turn-around time for system functions.

E) all of the above.

167) Which of the following is a true statement?

A) Mandatory features screen out possible solutions; essential features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies.

B) Essential features screen out possible solutions; mandatory features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies.

C) Mandatory features screen out possible solutions; essential features are those that users could live without.

D) Essential features screen out possible solutions; mandatory features are those that users could live without.

E) Desired features screen out possible solutions; mandatory features are the important capabilities of a system that will serve as the primary basis for comparison of different design strategies.

168) Constraints on systems development may include such factors as:

A) available financial and human resources.

B) elements of the current system that cannot change.

C) legal and contractual restrictions.

D) a date when the current system is needed.

E) all of the above.

169) Human interface design is performed during:

A) systems planning and selection.

B) systems analysis.

C) systems design.

D) systems implementation and operation.

E) requirements structuring.

170) Which of the following is a method for representing human-computer dialogues?

A) Logic modeling

B) Sequence modeling

C) Process modeling

D) Dialogue diagramming

E) Transition diagramming

171) System inputs and outputs are produced at the end of the:

A) systems analysis phase of the SDLC.

B) systems design phase of the SDLC.

C) systems planning and selection phase of the SDLC.

D) systems implementation and operation phase of the SDLC.

E) logic modeling stage.

172) Which of the following is the standard method of gathering and displaying information on the Internet?

A) Dialogue interaction

B) Form interaction

C) Report interaction

D) Menu selection

E) VRML interaction

173) A business document that contains some predefined data and may include some areas where additional data are to be filled in best describes a:

A) written procedure.

B) turn-around document.

C) form.

D) report.

E) coupon.

174) Which of the following is an example of a form?

A) Invoice

B) Pie chart

C) Mailing labels

D) Weekly sales summaries by region and salesperson

E) Automated teller machine transaction layout

175) Which of the following is an example of a form?

A) Invoice

B) Pie chart

C) Mailing labels

D) An electronic spreadsheet

E) Weekly sales summaries by region and salesperson

176) Which of the following best describes a business document that contains only predefined data?

A) Electronic spreadsheet

B) Turn-around document

C) Form

D) Report

E) Coupon

177) Which of the following is an example of a report?

A) Mailing labels

B) Computer sign-on screen

C) Electronic spreadsheet

D) Automated teller machine transaction layout

E) Class registration sheet

178) Each of the following are true statements EXCEPT:

A) every output form or report is a data flow produced by a process on a data-flow diagram.

B) forms have a stylized format and are usually not in simple rows and columns.

C) a report is only for reading and often contains data about multiple unrelated records in a computer file.

D) a form typically contains data from only one record.

E) systems inputs and outputs are produced during the systems implementation and operation phase of the systems development life cycle.

179) Form and report design:

A) generally follows a prototyping approach.

B) generally follows a structured methodology.

C) generally follows a structured design approach.

D) generally follows a structured analysis approach.

E) uses Structured English to prepare the design specifications.

180) When designing a form or report, which of the following is a fundamental question?

A) Who will use the form or report?

B) What is the purpose of the form or report?

C) When is the form or report needed and used?

D) Where does the form or report need to be delivered and used?

E) All of the above are fundamental questions.

181) The major deliverables associated with the human interface design stage are:

A) process models.

B) the Baseline Project Plan and structure charts.

C) logic models.

D) design specifications.

E) program specifications.

182) Which of the following is the design specification section that provides a general overview of the characteristics of the target users, tasks, systems, and environmental factors in which the form or report will be used?

A) System description

B) Narrative overview

C) Sample design

D) Testing and usability assessment

E) Project overview

183) Which part of the design specification explains to those who will actually develop the final form why this form exists and how it will be used so that they can make the appropriate implementation decisions?

A) System description

B) Narrative overview

C) Sample design

D) Testing and usability assessment

E) Project overview

184) Designing usable forms and reports requires:

A) prototyping.

B) data modeling.

C) active interaction with end users.

D) process modeling.

E) using structured analysis.

185) Which of the following is a guideline for designing forms and reports?

A) Design an easy navigation system

B) Balance the layout

C) Include meaningful information

D) Use meaningful titles

E) All of the above are guidelines for designing forms and reports.

186) Providing a current date that identifies when the form or report was generated corresponds to the form and report guideline of:

A) balance the layout.

B) design an easy navigation system.

C) include meaningful information.

D) use meaningful titles.

E) none of the above.

187) Making sure that all data and entry fields are clearly labeled corresponds to the following form and report guideline:

A) balance the layout.

B) design an easy navigation system.

C) use meaningful titles.

D) include meaningful information.

E) none of the above.

188) Commonly used methods for highlighting include:

A) blinking and audible tones.

B) color differences.

C) intensity differences.

D) size differences.

E) all of the above.

189) Commonly used methods for highlighting include each of the following EXCEPT:

A) reverse video.

B) boxing.

C) spacing.

D) underlining.

E) all capital letters.

190) Each of the following is a true statement about highlighting EXCEPT:

A) highlighting techniques can be used singularly or in combination, depending upon the level of emphasis desired by the designer.

B) highlighting should be used conservatively.

C) highlighting methods should be consistently selected and used based upon the level of importance of the emphasized information.

D) highlighting should be used as frequently as possible to draw the user to or away from certain information and to group together related information.

E) it is important to examine how a particular highlighting method appears on all possible output devices that could be used with the system.

191) Which of the following is a guideline for displaying text?

A) Use double spacing if space permits.

B) Do not hyphenate words between lines.

C) Left-justify text and leave a ragged right margin.

D) Display text in mixed upper- and lowercase and use conventional punctuation.

E) All of the above are guidelines for displaying text.

192) Each of the following is a guideline for displaying text EXCEPT:

A) use abbreviations and acronyms instead of full text.

B) do not hyphenate words between lines.

C) left-justify text and leave a ragged right margin.

D) display text in mixed upper- and lowercase and use conventional punctuation.

E) use double spacing if space permits.

193) Which of the following are general guidelines for displaying tables and lists?

A) All columns and rows should have meaningful labels.

B) Place a blank line between every five rows in long columns.

C) Use the same family of typefaces within and across displays and reports.

D) Allow white space on printed reports for the user to write notes.

E) All of the above are guidelines for displaying tables and lists.

194) Which of the following is NOT a general guideline for displaying tables and lists?

A) Labels should be separated from other information by using highlighting.

B) Avoid overly fancy fonts.

C) Columns should have at least two spaces between them.

D) Right-justify textual data, and use a short line length.

E) Similar information displayed in multiple columns should be sorted vertically.

195) Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding paper versus electronic reports?

A) Ink-jet printers and laser printers produce reports that look identical to the display screen.

B) Impact printers can exactly replicate a screen report to paper.

C) Impact printers are very fast, very reliable, and relatively inexpensive.

D) Impact printers are mainly used for producing large batches of reports.

E) When designing forms and reports for use with impact printers, you may be limited in the range of formatting, text types, and highlighting options.

196) Which of the following focuses on how information is provided to and captured from users?

A) Structure chart

B) Flow chart

C) Entity-relationship diagram

D) PERT diagram

E) Interface and dialogue design

197) When designing interfaces and dialogues, you follow a:

A) prototyping approach.

B) structured methodology approach.

C) structured design approach.

D) structured analysis approach.

E) Structured English approach.

198) The way a user can move from one display to another best describes:

A) dialogue sequence.

B) transition plan.

C) menu-driven interface.

D) screen sequence.

E) computer interface.

199) When designing the navigation procedures within your system, the primary concerns are:

A) the design of between-field navigation and the ability to provide feedback.

B) grouping data fields into logical categories and assigning group labels.

C) flexibility and consistency.

D) formatting and meaningful labels.

E) spacing and color differences.

200) Which of the following functional capabilities are required for providing smooth and easy navigation within a form?

A) Cursor-control capabilities

B) Editing capabilities

C) Exit capabilities

D) Help capabilities

E) All of the above

201) Movement to another screen corresponds to the functional requirement of:

A) cursor-control capabilities.

B) editing capabilities.

C) exit capabilities.

D) help capabilities.

E) formatting capabilities.

202) Which of the following is NOT a rule for structuring data entry fields?

A) Never require the user to enter information that is already available within the system.

B) Users should not be required to enter information that can be easily computed by the system.

C) Require users to specify the dimensional units of a particular value.

D) All data entered onto a screen should automatically justify in a standard format.

E) Always place a caption adjacent to fields.

203) Which of the following is NOT a rule for structuring data entry fields?

A) Never require data that is already online or that can be computed.

B) Always provide default values when appropriate.

C) Data entries should not be justified.

D) Always place a caption adjacent to fields.

E) Provide context-sensitive help when appropriate.

204) Reversing the sequence of one or more characters in a field is called:

A) transposing.

B) transcripting.

C) appending.

D) truncating.

E) hashing.

205) Entering invalid data into a field describes:

A) transposing.

B) transcripting.

C) appending.

D) truncating.

E) hashing.

206) Testing to assure that data is of proper type is the purpose of the:

A) expected values validation test.

B) range validation test.

C) class or composition validation test.

D) values validation test.

E) self-checking digits validation test.

207) Testing to assure that data conforms to a standard format is the purpose of the:

A) missing data validation test.

B) pictures templates validation test.

C) reasonableness validation test.

D) size validation test.

E) self-checking digits validation test.

208) "Please wait while I open the file" is an example of:

A) status information.

B) a remark.

C) a warning message.

D) a prompting cue.

E) a class or composition validation test.

209) Using lists to break information into manageable pieces conforms to the SOS guideline of:

A) shortcuts.

B) organize.

C) simplicity.

D) show.

E) sequence.

210) The ability to provide field-level help is often referred to as:

A) context-sensitive help.

B) screen-level help.

C) systems-level help.

D) application-level help.

E) user-level help.

211) The sequence of interaction between a user and a system best describes a(n):

A) interface.

B) discussion.

C) dialogue.

D) session.

E) listing.

212) The technique where users must confirm their intention twice before being allowed to proceed is called:

A) double-confirmation.

B) double-checking.

C) replacement confirmation.

D) validity confirmation.

E) feedback confirmation.

213) The guideline specifying that dialogues be logically grouped and have a beginning, middle, and end is:

A) closure.

B) shortcuts and sequence.

C) consistency.

D) control.

E) feedback.

214) The guideline specifying that dialogues be simple for users to enter information and navigate between screens is:

A) navigation.

B) ease.

C) shortcuts and sequence.

D) reversal.

E) feedback.

215) A formal method for designing and representing human-computer dialogues using box and line diagrams is referred to as:

A) interface design.

B) dialogue diagramming.

C) conversation modeling.

D) entity-relationship diagramming.

E) logic modeling.

216) Which of the following is a technique for showing users where they are in a Web site by placing a series of "tabs" on a Web page that shows users where they are and where they have been?

A) Cookie crumbs

B) Site markers

C) Data markers

D) Site locators

E) Site maps

217) The use of small, simple images to allow a Web page to be displayed more quickly best describes:

A) icons.

B) lightweight graphics.

C) cookie crumbs.

D) MPEG files.

E) template-based HTML.

218) Templates used to display and process common attributes of higher-level, more abstract items best describes: