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Data encryption defined in Data Protection 101, our series on the fundamentals of data security.
Data encryption translates data into another form, or code, so that only people with access to a secret key (formally called a decryption key) or password can read it. Encrypted data is commonly referred to as ciphertext, while unencrypted data is called plaintext. Currently, encryption is one of the most popular and effective data security methods used by organizations. Two main types of data encryption exist - asymmetric encryption, also known as public-key encryption, and symmetric encryption. The Primary Function of Data EncryptionThe purpose of data encryption is to protect digital data confidentiality as it is stored on computer systems and transmitted using the internet or other computer networks. The outdated data encryption standard (DES) has been replaced by modern encryption algorithms that play a critical role in the security of IT systems and communications. These algorithms provide confidentiality and drive key security initiatives including authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation. Authentication allows for the verification of a message’s origin, and integrity provides proof that a message’s contents have not changed since it was sent. Additionally, non-repudiation ensures that a message sender cannot deny sending the message. How Does Encryption WorkData, or plaintext, is encrypted with an encryption algorithm and an encryption key. The process results in ciphertext, which only can be viewed in its original form if it is decrypted with the correct key. Types of encryptionSymmetric-key ciphers use the same secret key for encrypting and decrypting a message or file. While symmetric-key encryption is much faster than asymmetric encryption, the sender must exchange the encryption key with the recipient before he can decrypt it. As companies find themselves needing to securely distribute and manage huge quantities of keys, most data encryption services have adapted and use an asymmetric algorithm to exchange the secret key after using a symmetric algorithm to encrypt data. On the other hand, asymmetric cryptography, sometimes referred to as public-key cryptography, uses two different keys, one public and one private. The public key, as it is named, may be shared with everyone, but the private key must be protected. The Rivest-Sharmir-Adleman (RSA) algorithm is a cryptosystem for public-key encryption that is widely used to secure sensitive data, especially when it is sent over an insecure network like the internet. The RSA algorithm’s popularity comes from the fact that both the public and private keys can encrypt a message to assure the confidentiality, integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiability of electronic communications and data through the use of digital signatures.
The most basic method of attack on encryption today is brute force, or trying random keys until the right one is found. Of course, the length of the key determines the possible number of keys and affects the plausibility of this type of attack. It is important to keep in mind that encryption strength is directly proportional to key size, but as the key size increases so do the number of resources required to perform the computation. Alternative methods of breaking a cipher include side-channel attacks and cryptanalysis. Side-channel attacks go after the implementation of the cipher, rather than the actual cipher itself. These attacks tend to succeed if there is an error in system design or execution. Likewise, cryptanalysis means finding a weakness in the cipher and exploiting it. Cryptanalysis is more likely to occur when there is a flaw in the cipher itself. Data Encryption SolutionsData protection solutions for data encryption can provide encryption of devices, email, and data itself. In many cases, these encryption functionalities are also met with control capabilities for devices, email, and data. Companies and organizations face the challenge of protecting data and preventing data loss as employees use external devices, removable media, and web applications more often as a part of their daily business procedures. Sensitive data may no longer be under the company’s control and protection as employees copy data to removable devices or upload it to the cloud. As a result, the best data loss prevention solutions prevent data theft and the introduction of malware from removable and external devices as well as web and cloud applications. In order to do so, they must also ensure that devices and applications are used properly and that data is secured by auto-encryption even after it leaves the organization. As we mentioned, email control and encryption is another critical component of a data loss prevention solution. Secure, encrypted email is the only answer for regulatory compliance, a remote workforce, BYOD, and project outsourcing. Premier data loss prevention solutions allow your employees to continue to work and collaborate through email while the software and tools proactively tag, classify, and encrypt sensitive data in emails and attachments. The best data loss prevention solutions automatically warn, block, and encrypt sensitive information based on message content and context, such as user, data class, and recipient. While data encryption may seem like a daunting, complicated process, data loss prevention software handles it reliably every day. Data encryption does not have to be something your organization tries to solve on its own. Choose a top data loss prevention software that offers data encryption with device, email, and application control and rest assured that your data is safe.
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors a network or systems for malicious activity or policy violations. Quizlet Stack Exchange A rainbow table attack is a more efficient and effective way of cracking many hashed passwords, whereas brute-forcing would take much longer and may not complete in a reasonable amount of time. Professor Messer. Q13. You configure an encrypted USB drive for a user who needs to deliver a sensitive file at an in-person meeting. What type of encryption is typically used to encrypt the file?Q14. What is the difference between DRP and BCPQ15. Which aspect of cybersecurity do Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks affect the most?Q16. You need to recommend a solution to automatically assess your cloud-hosted VMs against CIS benchmarks to identify deviations from security best practices. What type of solution should you recommend?Q17. _ validates the integrity of data files.Q18. Which is an example of privacy regulation at the state government level in the U.S.?Q19. what is the term for the policies and technologies implemented to protect, limit, monitor, audit, and govern identities with access to sensitive data and resources?Q20. You have configured audit settings in your organization's cloud services in the event of a security incident. What type of security control is an audit trail?Q21. What is the name for a short-term interruption in electrical power supply?Q22. Your security team recommends adding a layer of defense against emerging persistent threats and zero-day exploits for all endpoints on your network. The solution should offer protection from external threats for network-connected devices, regardless of operating system. Which solution is best suited to meet this requirement?Q23. Which is not a threat modeling methodology?Q24. You organization is conducting a pilot deployment of a new e-commerce application being considered for purchase. You need to recommend a strategy to evaluate the security of the new software. Your organization does not have access to the application's source code.Which strategy should you choose?Q25. You need to disable the camera on corporate devices to prevent screen capture and recording of sensitive documents, meetings, and conversations. Which solution would be be suited to the task?Q26. How many keys would be necessary to accomodate 100 users in an asymmetric cryptography system?Explanation: The formula for asymmetric encryption is 2n; where n is the number of communicating parties. Q27. Two competing online retailers process credit card transactions for customers in countries on every continent. One organization is based in the United States. The other is based in the Netherlands. With which regulation must both countries comply while ensuring the security of these transactions?Explanation: The Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS) is the global card industry security standard that is required of all entities that store, process, or transmit cardholder data, including financial institutions, online retailers and service providers. PCI Security Overview Q28. What provides a common language for describing security incidents in a structures and repeatable manner?Explanation: The Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) system provides a reference-method for publicly known information-security vulnerabilities and exposures. Q29. Which type of application can intercept sensative information such as passwoprds on a network segment?Explanation: A protocol analyzer is a tool used to capture and analyze signals and data traffic over a communication channel. WireShark is a protocol analyzer. Q30. An attacker has discovered that they can deduce a sensitive piece of confidential information by analyzing multiple pieces of less sensitive public data. What type of security issue exists?Explanation: An Inference Attack is a data mining technique performed by analyzing data in order to illegitimately gain knowledge about a subject or database. A subject's sensitive information can be considered as leaked if an adversary can infer its real value with a high confidence. Source: (Wikipedia). Q31. What act grants an authenticated party permission to perform an action or access a resource?Okata.com Q32. According to GDPR, a data _ is the person about whom data is being collected.Intersoft Consulting Q33. Which is not a principle of zero trust security?Explanation: zero trust assumes that the system will be breached and designs security as if there is no perimeter. Hence, don’t trust anything by default. NIST Q34. Which attack exploits input validation vulnerabilities?White Hat Sec Q35. You are a security analyst, and you receive a text message alerting you of a possible attack. Which security control is the least likely to produce this type of alert?Q36. SQL injection inserts a code fragment that makes a database statement universally true, like _.Q37. Which type of security assessment requires access to source code?Q38. Which option is an open-source solution to scanning a network for active hosts and open ports?nmap is a port scanner https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nmap wireshark is a traffic analyzer snort is an IDS autopsy is for forensic analysis Q39. When implementing a data loss prevention (DLP) strategy, what is the first step in the process?Q40. Which malware changes an operating system and conceals its tracks?Q41. Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) use _ to create a secure connection between two networks.Q42. What is the process of challenging a user to prove their identity?Q43. Which cyberattack aims to exhaust an application's resources, making the application unavailable to legitimate users?Q44. You are a recent cybersecurity hire, and your first assignment is to present on the possible threats to your organization. Which of the following best describes the task?Q45. You are at a coffee shop and connect to a public wireless access point (WAP). What a type of cybersecurity attack are you most likely to experience?Q46. You have been tasked with recommending a solution to centrally manage mobile devices used throughout your organization. Which technology would best meet this need?Q47. Which type of vulnerability cannot be discovered in the course of a typical vulnerability assessment?Q48. The DLP project team is about to classify your organization's data. Whats is the primary purpose of classifying data?Q49. You are responsible for managing security of your organization's public cloud infrastructure. You need to implement security to protect the data and applications running in a variety of IaaS and PaaS services, including a new Kubernetes cluster. What type of solution is best suited to this requirement?Q50. Sharing account credentials violates the _ aspect of access control.Q51. You have recovered a server that was compromised in a malware attack to its previous state. What is the final step in the incident response process?Q52. Which encryption type uses a public and private key pair for encrypting and decrypting data?Q53. You have just identified and mitigated an active malware attack on a user's computer, in which command and control was established. What is the next step in the process?Explanation: Pages 29 to 31 -> Q54. Which programming language is most susceptible to buffer overflow attacks?Q55. Which list correctly describes risk management techniques?
Q56. To implement encryption in transit, such as with the HTTPS protocol for secure web browsing, which type(s) of encryption is/are used?Q57. Which type of program uses Windows Hooks to capture keystrokes typed by the user, hides in the process list, and can compromise their system as well as their online access codes and password?Q58. How does ransomware affect a victim's files?Q59. Your computer has been infected, and is sending out traffic to a targeted system upon receiving a command from a botmaster. What condition is your computer currently in?Q60. You choose a cybersecurity framework for your financial organization that implements an effective and auditable set of governance and management processes for IT. Which framework are you choosing?Q61. NIST issued a revision to SP 800-37 in December 2018. It provides a disciplined, structured, and flexible process for managing security and privacy risk. Which type of document is SP 800-37?Q62. The most notorious military-grade advanced persistent threat was deployed in 2010, and targeted centrifuges in Iran. What was this APT call?Q63. Where would you record risks that have been identified and their details, such as their ID and name, classification of information, and the risk owner?Q64. To prevent an incident from overwhelming resources, _ is necessary.Q65. FUD is expensive and often causes high drama over low risk. Which computer chip exploits were reported by CNN as needing to be completely replaced, but were later fixed with firmware updates?Q66. The ASD Top Four are application whitelisting, patching of applications, patching of operating systems, and limiting administrative privileges. What percent of breaches do these account for?Q67. You are working in the security operations center analyzing traffic on your network. You detect what you believe to be a port scan. What does this mean?Q68. How often is the ISF Standard of Good Practice updated?Q69. Your incident response team is unable to contain an incident because they lack authority to take action without management approval. Which critical step in the preparation phase did your team skip?Q70. NIST SP 800-53 is one of two important control frameworks used in cybersecurity. What is the other one?Q71. Which organization, established by NIST in 1990, runs workshops to foster coordination in incident prevention, stimulate rapid reaction to incidents, and allow experts to share information?Q72. You have implemented controls to mitigate the threats, vulnerabilities, and impact to your business. Which type of risk is left over?Explanation Q73. There are four possible treatments once an assessment has identified a risk. Which risk treatment implements controls to reduce risk?Q74. Which security control scheme do vendors often submit their products to for evaluation, to provide an independent view of product assurance?Q75. Which organization has published the most comprehensive set of controls in its security guideline for the Internet of Things?Q76. Which main reference coupled with the Cloud Security Alliance Guidance comprise the Security Guidance for Critical Areas of Focus in Cloud Computing?Explanation Q77. What are the essential characteristics of the reference monitor?Q78. According to NIST, what is the first action required to take advantage of the cybersecurity framework?Explanation Q79. You are implementing a cybersecurity program in your organization and want to use the "de facto standard" cybersecurity framework. Which option would you choose?Q80. In 2014, 4,278 IP addresses of zombie computers were used to flood a business with over one million packets per minute for about one hour. What is this type of attack called?Explanation Q81. The regulatory requirements for notifications of data breaches, particularly the European General Data Protection Regulations, have had what sort of effect on business?Q82. Which compliance framework governs requirements for the U.S. healthcare industry?Explanation Q83. What is the difference between DevOps and DevSecOps?Explanation Q84. When does static application security testing require access to source code?Explanation: Q85. Your organization service customer orders with a custom ordering system developed in-hose. You are responsible for recommending a cloud model to meet the following requirements:Control of security required for regulatory compliance Legacy application and database support Scalability to meet seasonal increases in demand Which cloud model is the best option for these requirements? Q86. You have just conducted a port scan of a network. There is no well-known port active. How do you find a webserver running on a host, which uses a random port number?Q87. Executives in your organization exchange emails with external business partners when negotiating valuable business contracts. To ensure that these communications are legally defensible, the security team has recommended that a digital signature be added to these message.What are the primary goals of the digital signature in this scenario? (Choose the best answer.) Q88. Which option is a mechanism to ensure non-repudiation?Explanation: Q89. Which software development lifecycle approach is most compatible with DevSecOps?Q90. Which information security principle states that organizations should defend systems against any particular attack using several independent methods?Explanation: Q91. Which option describes a core principle of DevSecOps?Q92. You need to implement a solution to protect internet-facing applications from common attacks like XSSm CSRF, and SQL injection. Which option is best suited to the task?Q93. Which phase of the incident response process happens immediately following identification?Q94. How can a data retention policy reduce your organization's legal liability?Q95. You believe a recent service outage due to a denial-of-service attack from a disgruntled inside source. What is the name for the malicious act this employee has committed?Q96. Which option is a framework widely utilized by organizations in the development of security governance standards?Q97. There are connection-oriented and connectionless protocols in networking. What do web browsers use to ensure the integrity of the data it sends and receives?Q98. Which type of attack targets vulnerabilities associated with translating MAC addresses into IP addresses in computer networking?Q99. You are part of of an incident response team at your company. While sifting through log files collected by a SIEM, you discover some suspicious log entries that you want to investigate further. Which type of the following best refers to those recorded activities demanding additional scrutiny?Q100. You are responsible for forensic investigations in your organization.You have been tasked with investigating a compromised virtual application server. Becase a revenue generating application runs on the server, the server needs to be returned to service as quickly as possible.What is the next step you should take to best fulfill your responsibilities and meet the needs of the business? Q101. Site-to-site VPN provides access from one network address space (192.168.0.0/24) to another network address space _ site-to-site VPN provides access from one network address space (192.168.0.0/24) to another network address space _.Q102. You are researching probable threats to your company’s internet-facing web applications. Which organization should you reference as an authoritative source for information on web-based attack vectors?Explanation: Q103. Which action is most likely to simplify security staff training, improve integration between security components, and reduce risk to the business? (Choose the best answer.)Which action is most likely to simplify security staff training, improve integration between security components, and reduce risk to the business? (Choose the best answer.)Explanation: Q104. _ attacks can execute the code injected by attackers as part of user inputs.Q105. Which activity is not part of risk assessment?Q106. In response to an alert regarding a possible security incident, you are analyzing the logs for a web application. In the process, you see the following string: ./../../../var/secrets What type of attack was most likely attempted against the application?Q107. Which quadrant should be the focus of risk management?Q108. Which option will not actively identify a secuirty incident?Q109. A website is asking for a password and also sending an authentication code to your phone. What factors are used in this multi-factor authentication scenario?Explanation: Q110. Which option is a list of publicly disclosed information security defects?Explanation: Common Weakness Enumeration (CWE) is a universal online dictionary of security defects that have been found in computer software. Q111. What is cryptovirology?Q112. What does a metamorphic virus do?Explanation: Q113. What is the most common cause of cyber incidents in organisations?Explanation: Social Engineering and human error are the most common cause of cyber incidents as it is easier for attackers to convince employees to give up passwords or accept MFA prompts than it is to breach & exploit the system. See Recent Uber and Cisco hack Q114. Which of the following terms is used to describe a collection of unrelated patches?Q115. How often should security teams conduct a review of the privileged access that a user has to sensitive systems?`Explanation: Privilaged access reviews are one of the most critical components of an organisations security program as they ensure only autherised users have access to the most sensitive systems. They should occur on a fixed periodic basis as well as when ever a privileged user leaves the organisation or changes roles within the organisation Q116. What Term is used to descrbe the defualt set of privileges assigned to a user when a new account is created?Explanation: Entitlement refers to the privileges granted to a user when their account is first provisioned Q117. Who is the father of computer security??Explanation: August Kerckhoffs, a linguist and German professor at HEC, wrote an essay in the Journal of Military Science in February 1883. Kerckhoff had unwittingly established the foundations for contemporary encryption, earning him the title of “Father of Computer Security.” Q118. Which type of attack uses formal emails to entice specific individuals into signing in and changing their passwords?Q119. A data asset register should contain which of the following?Q120. Once you have confirmed that Burpsuite is intercepting website requests, where can you check to see if you have credentials in cleartext to access the target webpage?Q121. Threat actors will attempt to find an attack vector on their target by mapping the attack _____.Q122. How would an organisation ensure software product support in the event a supplier goes out of business or is sold to a competitor?Q123. Which of the following is the security standard that applies to the certification of security controls within products?Page 2
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Which of the following best states the role of encryption within an overall cybersecurity program?
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